h34d

joined 2 years ago
[–] h34d@feddit.de 2 points 2 years ago

*Stand. Die haben sich glaub vor ner Weile schon offiziell in einfach "KDE" umbenannt.

[–] h34d@feddit.de 1 points 2 years ago (1 children)

That's not how linguistics works though. If people (native speakers) speak like that, it's "correct" or normal for their dialect. This doesn't mean it's "correct" in whatever is considered the "standard" dialect of the language (for English, there isn't one single standard, but de facto there are standard dialects in the English speaking countries which are taught in school and typically used in the news, newspapers etc.). But from a linguistic perspective, both "I have seen it." and "I seen it." are equally "correct" (linguists typically don't use that term in this context, rather something like "grammatical"), they just represent different dialects of English.

[–] h34d@feddit.de 0 points 2 years ago (3 children)

As far as I know this is pretty normal in (some?) Southern American dialects, i.e. it's not wrong, just dialectal.

[–] h34d@feddit.de 3 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (9 children)

While it is true that "should of" etc. can easily originate from a confusion between "'ve'" and unstressed "of", which sound identical, the statement

"Should of" is incorrect

itself is at least a bit misleading and prescriptivist in its generality.

Interestingly, there seem to be at least some native English speakers who genuinely do say "should of" (with a stressed "of") sometimes. This paper for example argues that people who say "should of" really do use a grammatical construction of the form modal verb + of + past participle. One argument the author mentions is that this would also explain the words "woulda", "coulda" and "shoulda", since "of"->"a" is quite common in general (e.g. "kind of" -> "kinda"), but "'ve"->"a" basically doesn't occur elsewhere (e.g. no one says "I'a" or "you'a" instead of "I've" or "you've"). Another is that the reverse mistake, i.e. using "'ve'" in place of "of" (e.g. "kind've"), is much rarer, which is a clear difference to e.g. the situation with "they're"/"their"/"there", where people use these words in place of the others in all combinations frequently. I recommend this blog article for a much longer discussion.

Also, whether genuine mistake (which it almost certainly is in many cases, although probably not all) or different grammatical construction, YSK that "should of" etc. didn't just become popular recently, but have been used for centuries. E.g. John Keats wrote in a letter in 1814: "Had I known of your illness I should not of written in such fiery phrase in my first Letter.". Many more examples (some older as well) can be found e.g. here or here.

TL;DR: While in many cases "should of" etc. can well be a mistake, originating from the fact that it sounds identical to "should've" when unstressed, there is some interesting linguistic evidence that at least in some dialects of English native speakers really do say "should of" etc. (i.e. in those cases it is not a mistake, merely non-standard/dialectal).

[–] h34d@feddit.de 6 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Es gibt das hier, ist aber etwas unvollständig und betrifft wohl nur die Subreddits, die beim Blackout mitgemacht haben/machen.

[–] h34d@feddit.de 16 points 2 years ago (1 children)

It's not entirely the same though. Some of the "tankies" in the West seem to be Maoists more than Stalinists, as far as I can tell. Besides, some (many?) Stalinists also consider the term "Stalinist" derogatory, and prefer to call themselves "Marxist-Leninists".

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