TheSanSabaSongbird

joined 2 years ago
[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 6 points 2 years ago

What has Mr. Jeremy got to do with this?

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 1 points 2 years ago (2 children)

I'll be honest; I don't have a great answer. I just know for a fact that blocking traffic hurts the working poor far more than it does the elite who are ostensibly the people being targeted by such protests.

As a union member and union activist, my ultimate answer is always going to be more union organizing and more union actions.

I am all in on Local 10 till I die!

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 4 points 2 years ago (1 children)

May I recommend "In The Penal Colony" as well. It's good clean fun. I used to read it to the kids before bed.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 4 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Nope. Total coincidence.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 4 points 2 years ago

That's why he needs to be locked up at ADX Florence.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 1 points 2 years ago

In my experience living in Ireland and traveling to other English-speaking countries you're at least as likely to be called an "American" as you are "yank."

The reason why is that it dates back to the British Empire and the fact that British subjects lived in the "American" colonies for at least 200 years before they gained independence. By that time the usage in the British Empire, of referring to people from the "American" colonies as "Americans," was pretty well baked into informal English usage and it never really died out.

Linguistics doesn't tell us how language should work in a prescriptive sense, it just tells us why it works and how it's used and why every language we know of is full of logical inconsistencies, especially English.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 2 points 2 years ago

Only in the US. In the rest of the English-speaking world many people don't know or don't care about these differences and it's just a blanket term for all Americans.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 2 points 2 years ago

No, it's the entire English-speaking world, which actually makes sense since the practice originated with the British Empire long before American independence.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 3 points 2 years ago

It goes back to the colonies. In the British Empire the continental colonies were "the American colonies," so British subjects from said colonies were called "Americans" for upwards of 200 years prior to the revolution. After the revolution, since Halifax was the only major continental port that remained in British hands, it made sense to call its colonists something else, while those to the south retained the name "Americans."

Conversely, the Caribbean possessions were called "The West Indies" or "The West Indies Station."

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 1 points 2 years ago

It's been widely reported that she will move up the trial date which is the last thing he wants since his strategy is to delay until after the election at which time, if he wins, none of this will matter. The theory is that doing so gives him less time to intimidate witnesses and officers of the courts.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 0 points 2 years ago

Right, but more than one thing can be true at once.

[–] TheSanSabaSongbird@lemdro.id 2 points 2 years ago (2 children)

I think they're saying that it applies equally to voting, whether that was the originally intended meaning or not.

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