I like this question because it asks how is 'free will' defined exactly. Depending on how that is done, one might argue that sociopaths have more 'free will' than others due to social context. I think this is pretty useful to force philosophy to have a more social context with this stuff.
It's similar to the contrast between "liberty to X" vs "liberty from X". Defining 'free will' only in the context of individualism doesn't seem to be very helpful, but I've not seen much of this discussed around this topic. It's mostly tug-of-war BS between philosophy, religion, neuroscience. We need more social sciences in there.