this post was submitted on 19 Mar 2024
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[–] Miphera@lemmy.world 48 points 1 year ago (7 children)
[–] Bubs@lemmings.world 25 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (6 children)

If I remember correctly, the ELI5 is it's impossible to measure something without interacting with it in some way. The calculations and science determine it will turn out like the top image. The moment we try to measure it though, we have to interact with it. This changes the calculations and whatnot, thus producing a different pattern.

It's that correct more or less?

[–] CompassRed@discuss.tchncs.de 1 points 1 year ago

Yeah, you're close. You seem to be suggesting that any measurement causes the interference pattern to disappear implying that we can't actually observe the interference pattern. I'm not sure if that's what you truly meant, but that isn't the case. Disclaimer: I'm not an expert - I could be mistaken.

The particle is actually being measured in both experiments, but it's measured twice in the second experiment. That's because both experiments measure the particle's position at the screen while the second one also measures if the particle passes through one of the slits. It's the measurement at the slit that disrupts the interference pattern; however, both patterns are physically observable. Placing a detector at the slit destroys the interference pattern, and removing the detector from the slit reintroduces the interference pattern.

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