this post was submitted on 03 Dec 2025
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Memes

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A meme is an idea, behavior, or style that spreads by means of imitation from person to person within a culture and often carries symbolic meaning representing a particular phenomenon or theme.

An Internet meme or meme, is a cultural item that is spread via the Internet, often through social media platforms. The name is by the concept of memes proposed by Richard Dawkins in 1972. Internet memes can take various forms, such as images, videos, GIFs, and various other viral sensations.


Laittakaa meemejä tänne.

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[–] Lembot_0005@lemy.lol 7 points 2 weeks ago (2 children)

In my language we have genders for every noun. But it is trivially deducted from the spelling/pronunciation of that noun.

[–] DmMacniel@feddit.org 9 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (3 children)

Tell me the Gender of Nutella or Yogurt, then :)

[–] capuccino@lemmy.world 8 points 2 weeks ago

La nutella (she) y el (he) yogurt.

[–] Lembot_0005@lemy.lol 4 points 2 weeks ago (2 children)

Nutella -- female, Yogurt -- male.

[–] flandish@lemmy.world 5 points 2 weeks ago (2 children)

curious: but why? is there a formula or is it a combination of memorization with relations? ie: “i dont remember the gender of a trash can but I know a cooking pot is male and I cook like trash so a trash can is male?”

[–] gustofwind@lemmy.world 4 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

usually if it ends in "a" it's feminine versus "o" for masculine, but there are exceptions for that too!

[–] flandish@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

interesting. language is interesting.

[–] Railcar8095@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (2 children)

And easy. For example "futbolista" is "female football player", because it ends in "a", and "futbolista" is "male football player" because... Wait what?

Another easy example is "mar" (sea). It's clearly masculine. Except if you're a poet in love with the sea and you make it female because "no homo" I guess.

OK, the sea is fluid (pun intended), makes sense. What about the computer? "Computadora" is femenine. But it's synonym "ordenador" is masculine. So it's a property of the word, not what it represents. This creates a rare case when someone use the english "desktop" to refer to the computer, but still inherit the female from "computadora", so it's "la desktop".

Or my favorite, Mano (hand), witch is strong so obviously male. But if it's little hand (manita) then it's not strong so female. Except in some counties were remains male.

Next week in "WTF is wrong with Spanish: ser and estar ("to be" and "to be, but like different")

[–] calcopiritus@lemmy.world 2 points 2 weeks ago

I don't know what dialect you speak where "Mano" is masculine. In Spain it is feminine, and I've never heard anyone say "el mano". I've also never heard anyone say "el manita".

I don't think "ser" and "estar" being different verbs is at all wrong with spanish. They are very clearly different concepts.

You can be something because it is part of you "I am tall" or you can be something situationally "I am at the library". What is weird to me is that English uses the same verb for those clearly different concepts.

[–] boonhet@sopuli.xyz 1 points 2 weeks ago

Somehow the ser vs estar distinction almost makes sense. I don't like it but I understand it

[–] Lembot_0005@lemy.lol 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Last letter/sound matters. Some -- female, some -- male, some -- neutral (we have 3 grammatical genders in my language)

[–] flandish@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

“matters” but curious where the logic or rules come from and is it harder than expected for folks who cannot hear the sound?

[–] Lembot_0005@lemy.lol 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

logic or rules come from

That is a "natural" language. Not C++ or Esperanto. No logic. Just bullshit and idiocy.

is it harder than expected for folks who cannot hear the sound?

Absolutely trivial for anyone. If the word ends with "a", it is female. If any consonant -- male, "o" -- neutral.

[–] flandish@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago

interesting. i know there are some linguistics books out there I may look into any about this. appreciated the replies!

[–] matelt@feddit.uk 3 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Nah pal it's le Nutella. Don't ask me why cause I don't know. The word ending in 'a' isn't a valid argument because you don't drink une Fanta do you? Or do you?

[–] calcopiritus@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

I believe this comment chain is about spanish, not french.

In Spanish the last letter of the word is right most of the time. We do say "una Fanta".

[–] matelt@feddit.uk 1 points 2 weeks ago

Well it's on a thread about how ridiculous French is

[–] MacNCheezus@lemmy.today 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Is the gender of yogurt under debate in Germany? I am only aware of Nutella and butter. Yogurt was always male.

[–] manucode 1 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

According to Duden, Joghurt may have any gender. I agree with you though that it should be der Joghurt. Edit: It seems like die/das Joghurt is mostly used outside Germany.

[–] MacNCheezus@lemmy.today 1 points 2 weeks ago

What is it with the Austrians always stirring up shit?

[–] merc@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

What if it's a loan word from another language, like "the facebook" (El Feis) or "playstation" or "hentai"?

[–] Lembot_0005@lemy.lol 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Doesn't matter, the rules are the same.

[–] merc@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 week ago

Ok, so what's the rule for those 3 examples?