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They're a protected class because they're singled out for violence because of their class. And it's a real world problem not a logic quiz. Misogyny and misandry are not equivalent in reality the way they are in the dictionary.
Does that make hate crime murder against men less worth prosecuting as such? Why shouldn't the legal definition be symmetrical?
How many hate crime murders of men are there in Italy?
Idk probably less and so the law against hate crimes for men would be used less than the one against them for women. Again, why would you not treat them the same in each individual case? If 80% of thievery was committed against women, would you not also prosecute the 20% committed against men just the same?
At no point did anyone suggest that they weren’t prosecuting murder against men, nor did they suggest they would do so with less effort. All this law does is allow the courts to take misogyny into account so that motive isn’t ignored or downplayed during the charging proces.
Yes, they prosecute murder for both genders. I'm asking why the hate crime aspect that increases the sentence is not the same.
To be clear, I think the femicide change is a good thing, just unnecessarily restrictive.
If someone murdered a male due to their sex, would you treat that any differently than someone murdering a female due to their sex?
Calling it a logic trick is just a cheap way to devalue a valid argument
Nobody is being harmed. Codifying punishments for femicide into law is a good thing.
Making the law cover all genders covers more situations, so it would be better. You could still advertise it for its primary purpose of helping women to try to change the culture and get many of the same benefits.
It bothers me because I think there is an alternative that makes more sense-- that's the whole reason I care here. You can assume whatever else you want about me or my feelings towards the matter, but these assumptions haven't been correct so far, so I doubt they will be accurate in the future either.