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Thanks for linking a source but this is a misleading interpretation, please don’t try to argue with data if you don’t know how to interpret it.
You need to look at e.g. the top 10%, middle 40% and bottom 50% to get a proper idea. And then look at it country by country because the scales don’t match. Yes, the USA are extremely inequal, I think back to like 1913 level in 2013 or something like that iirc, so if you put them on a plot with e.g. France, France will look great.
But if you look at France alone you get a different picture and inequality is rising again since the 80s. Here’s an article by a French economist with research focus on inequality which cites the same data: https://blogs.lse.ac.uk/inequalities/2025/09/24/global-inequality-in-historical-perspective-part-1/
And people in France compare their own wealth share declining from yesteryear to this year, not to Americans' wealth share.
Oh yeah I hadn’t seen your comment thanks for also pointing that out.
Thanks for this. Inequality is now in Europe lower than it is in India, China, the U.S., and it is below the global average. It may be hard if this doesn't align with your desired narrative, but this doesn't change the fact.
There is no desired narrative. There is data and I wanted to give you the benefit of the doubt but you seem to be actually incapable of interpreting it correctly.
Yeah, the benefit of the doubt is invaluable. So go back and rethink your interpretation.