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Well historically the industrial revolution began in GB and then the rest of the "west" as we know it today. All under existing structures of old wealth such as monarchies and nobility, eventually giving birth to capitalism.
The countries mentioned above were going through that same process only some decades later.
China is a great example because they are so thorough and totalitarian in their societal progression, they essentially forced through all this change in just a few decades and there is a lot of statistical information available that you could have a look at illustrating the process of an emerging middle class and their ultra rich class along their economical development.
Where are these statistics about China?
I dont know and really dont care to look them up for you. I would think you could google for whatever year and wealth distribution / productivity indicators of China, iirc they are fairly proud of what "the party" has done in that regard. Shouldnt be hard to find.
If you want to believe we germans live in some equality paradise thats your call of course, but we dont.
@GregorGizeh@lemmy.zip
You say there is a lot of statistical information available, but then you admit you don't even know where it is. Classic.
Why are you like this, fucking exhausting lol
I'm not trying to defend a masters thesis while taking a shit, thank you very much. My comment is based on what i know and learned about China over the last few decades, why do you treat this as some outrageous claim i am making?
Industrialization under a system of private ownership leads to a general increase in the standard of giving, yes, but still causes an extremely rich owner/capitalist class to emerge. In Europe that happened earlier, sometimes meshing with old hierarchical structures such as the nobility, in the other countries later.
What the fuck kind of proof do you want? Thats not contested information.
and yet...
I guess the part I don't understand what you're trying to assert re: time since "industrialization" vs wealth inequality.
Are you saying industrialization is responsible for lowering inequality or creating it?
If you're suggesting it creates inequality, then I would expect Europe to have higher inequality than China. It does not.
If you are suggesting it reduces inequality, then I would expect China's wealth inequality to be trending downwards since the 70s. It is not. It has risen sharply in that time frame.
I'm still assuming that I'm just misunderstanding your hypothesis... so I guess my question would just be:
What do you hypothesize the process of industrialization does to weath distribution?
Europe has industrialize more then 20 years ago. So inequality does not increase due to that process, but it does in China.