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Jesus was literally claiming to be God in the passage about forgiveness of sins.
Pretty sure he claims to be the son of man.
Mark 2:5-12 ESV
By saying "the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins" was a divinity claim. Because the scribes were correct - only God can forgive sins.
Sin is a transgression against God. So only God is in a position to forgive that.
Psalm 51:4 ESV [4] Against you, you only, have I sinned and done what is evil in your sight, so that you may be justified in your words and blameless in your judgment.
This is written by David despite the fact he committed adultery.
2 Samuel 12:9, 13 ESV [9] Why have you despised the word of the Lord, to do what is evil in his sight? You have struck down Uriah the Hittite with the sword and have taken his wife to be your wife and have killed him with the sword of the Ammonites. [13] David said to Nathan, “I have sinned against the Lord.” And Nathan said to David, “The Lord also has put away your sin; you shall not die.
If someone were to wrong me, would my child be able to forgive them? Nope. I'd have to forgive.
He says the son of man has the authority to forgive sins. If he is trying to explain that he is god, he is doing a terrible job. To me it seems like he is saying "you think only god can forgive sins, I'll show you you're wrong"
You're saying that your omnipotent god can't authorize someone to forgive sins on its behalf?
Whenever Jesus did directly claim to be God, they tried to kill Him.
John 8:58-59
John 10:30-31
John 8 starts with the pericope of the women caught in adultery, one of the edits I mentioned....
Do you know what John 10 doesn't say?
Argument from silence fallacy