this post was submitted on 20 Sep 2025
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Luigi Mangione

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[–] shalafi@lemmy.world 43 points 4 days ago (2 children)

Missing something here. How are the feds prosecuting for murder when murder has always been a state charge? In any case, is this not double jeopardy?

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 34 points 4 days ago (1 children)

I think because he fled across state lines. It seems like a stretch to me, but I am not a lawyer.

[–] LodeMike@lemmy.today 11 points 4 days ago (1 children)
[–] DreamlandLividity@lemmy.world 12 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago)

Not that much of a stretch. Since a state may refuse to arrest someone who committed a crime in a different state if they are sympathetic to said crime (especially a concern when USA was split between slavery and anti-slavery states), the feds can have jurisdiction in these cases, since otherwise it may involve a dispute between states. It makes at least some sense...

If you want to see a real stretch (aka completely made up bullshit), look up how feds justify growing marihuana for your own consumption (not sale) somehow involves interstate commerce.

[–] homura1650@lemmy.world 14 points 4 days ago

Double jeopardy does not apply to facing federal and state charges under the dual sovereign doctrine. It does not really make sense, but that's the law.