this post was submitted on 10 Sep 2025
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Explanation: In the Spanish Civil War in the mid-1930s, the two major fascist regimes of the period - Fascist Italy and Nazi Germany - got involved on the side of the Nationalists, and the Stalinist USSR got involved on the side of the leftist Republicans (not always helpfully, as seen in the insistence on purging anarchist allies). All three refrained from 'outright' war, instead opting to supply equipment and 'advisers', hoping that it would be enough to tip the scales in favor of their chosen side.
Ultimately, the nationalists won, ushering in a period of some ~40 years of fascist rule, ending only with the death of the dictator Francisco Franco.
In the image I miss two other countries giving money to Germany to bet: UK and US.
Neither the UK nor the US supported the Nazi government even at this early period, and both joined the arms embargo on Spain.
Except Texaco gave gasoline to Franco, UK had contracts with the traitor's side BEFORE the war ended, Ford was pro-Franco, IBM was making businesses with Germany, ...
"Oh, it's not the country! Only the biggest business in the country!"🤮
This may come as a surprise, but yes, the government and businesses are often angling towards different interests.
Had it been the case then the US government would have stopped them. There was a "no intervention" law. But it seems it only applied to the Republic.
The embargo only applied to arms, hence why the Republic also was able to purchase large amounts of dual-use goods from the US. Not only that, but arms sales to the fascists were actively denied by the US government.
They had the Germans for that.
So you admit that the US government did stop businesses which intended arms sales to the nationalists and that the US businesses selling to the Nationalists were not operating under a double-standard where they were forbidden from selling to the Republic, contrary to what you initially claimed.