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It's completely valid to say "actually, I think any proceeds should go to the original victims if we can identify them today", but that's not what you said, you said it's antisemitism to suggest giving it to specifically Palestinians. Would you have called it antisemitic if they suggested giving the money to doctors without borders?
You can disagree with the allocation of the proceeds, or the idea is selling the art in the first place, but you immediately jumped to accusation is antisemitism because Palestinians were involved.
I didn't disagree with your "allocation" nor did I accuse you of antisemitism nor did I "connect Israel with all Jews", perhaps your reading comprehension is worse than you would like to think. Explaining subtext as to why something would be perceived as a thing doesn't make you that thing.
Let me put it this way: is it antisemitic to forget that the Jewish victim exists when discussing Nazis stealing art ? If not, does it SEEM like antisemitism if YOU then start talking about taking that money/painting that was stolen and rightfully belongs to some Jewish family somewhere, and giving it to Palestine?
Your comment made the connection.