this post was submitted on 20 Jul 2025
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[–] PugJesus@lemmy.world 2 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (32 children)

(1) It is unlikely that 90% of the human population lived in extreme poverty prior to the 19th century. Historically, unskilled urban labourers in all regions tended to have wages high enough to support a family of four above the poverty line by working 250 days or 12 months a year, except during periods of severe social dislocation, such as famines, wars, and institutionalized dispossession – particularly under colonialism

This is utterly insane and against every serious study of premodern economics I'm aware of.

Capitalism directly causes poverty, and the starvation of at least 9 million people worldwide per year.

Considering that most deaths by starvation and malnutrition are in areas where capitalism is weak to begin with...?

[–] AngryCommieKender@lemmy.world 3 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (31 children)

Every serious study of pre modern economics that I have seen supports that premise. Homelessness and starvation when famine isn't present didn't exist anywhere before capitalism. Hell, even Adam Smith said that it would be necessary to switch off of capitalism to something more equitable once certain economic milestones had been achieved. We achieved those milestones in the mid 1850s to 1870s by the latest.

[–] PugJesus@lemmy.world 0 points 2 weeks ago (30 children)

Every serious study of pre modern economics that I have seen supports that premise. Homelessness and starvation when famine isn’t present didn’t exist anywhere before capitalism.

Jesus fucking Christ.

[–] technocrit@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 2 weeks ago

Keep crying to your lord. Keeps you free from reality.

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