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Ubi estne? (infosec.pub)

submitted 3 months ago by PugJesus@lemmy.world to c/latin@lemm.ee

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[–] b_tr3e@feddit.org 3 points 3 months ago (1 children)

Yes. Most of the middle eastern transcripts were into ancient Greek. I doubt, however, that anyone out in rural Palestine of 0 BC was speaking Greek so the origins should be somewhat more obscure.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 2 points 3 months ago* (last edited 3 months ago)

I doubt, however, that anyone out in rural Palestine of 0 BC was speaking Greek so the origins should be somewhat more obscure.

The root was likely borrowed from Aramaic or Hebrew. However the origin of the genitive itself is Greek - unlike Latin, Greek typically didn't borrow full declension tables, it borrowed the root and plopped a native Greek declension. And that's clearly the case here, none of the Semitic languages use an -s for the base form, so Greek changed even the nominative:

Aramaic: ישוע yešūʿ /jeˈʃuʕ/
Hebrew (syncopated, Tiberian reading): יֵשׁוּעַ /jeːˈʃuːʕ/ [jeˑˈʃuː.aʕ]
Greek: Ἰησοῦς Iēsoûs /i.e:.su:s/