this post was submitted on 09 Oct 2024
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[–] Cenotaph@mander.xyz 56 points 10 months ago (2 children)

I mean, say this doctor has a 100% success rate but another doctor has 0%. Those two doctors collectively have a 50% success rate but it you have far better odds with the first doctor than the second

[–] TheyCallMeHacked@discuss.tchncs.de 10 points 10 months ago (1 children)

The two doctors would only have a combined 50% success rate if they perform the same number of surgeries

[–] thefartographer@lemm.ee 30 points 10 months ago (1 children)

After a certain point, it's really society's fault for letting the surgeon batting 0 continue performing surgeries.

[–] MNByChoice@midwest.social 5 points 10 months ago (1 children)

That surgeon is bound to get one right one of these days!

[–] stephen01king@lemmy.zip 2 points 10 months ago

It's just statistics.

[–] sk@hub.utsukta.org 0 points 10 months ago (2 children)

@Cenotaph Nope, say the first doctor did 100 successful cases, the other did 2 successful and 2 failed, then the collective would be (100+2)*100/104 = 98.07%

So the number of cases would matter.

[–] Cenotaph@mander.xyz 23 points 10 months ago

Of course. My point was only that there is definitely a difference between an individual doctor's success rate and the overall success rate of a procedure across all doctors, responding to the commment I replied to.

[–] RogueBanana@lemmy.zip 1 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

98.07 for the surgery in general but not if you have decided to go to the first doctor. Then the 50% chance of the second doctor doesn't not come into the equation, assuming surgery is done by the first doctor who is independent of second doctor. Hope that makes more sense.